Is there any use of the moral law to man since the fall?

Thursday, January 3, 2008 at 10:08AM
rebecca in Westminster Catechism

Although no man, since the fall, can attain to righteousness and life by the moral law;[1] yet there is great use thereof, as well common to all men, as peculiar either to the unregenerate, or the regenerate.[2]

1. Rom. 8:3

   For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do. By sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh….

   Gal. 2:16

   … yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.

2. I Tim. 1:8

   Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it lawfully….

Question 94, Westminster Larger Catechism 

Article originally appeared on Rebecca Writes (http://rebecca-writes.com/).